Should a false teaching be called as '; past truth ';? Why? Why not?

Interesting spin on a lie..





A false teaching was never a truth.





Cult gobbledygook if you ask me.





Good pointed question Nina shows how brains are numbed and sheeple go along unquestioningly.





s it true that the Watchtower Society's prophecy that Armageddon will come before ';the end of the generation of 1914'; (You Can Live Forever In Paradise On Earth, pg. 154), is no longer taught as truth?


If so, then does that mean that this teaching of the Watchtower Society, which they have taught for decades, was a false teaching?


Since the Watchtower Society teaches that they are the ';one channel that the Lord is using during the last days of this system of things'; (Jehovah's Witnesses Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg. 626) and that the governing body is ';the mouthpiece of Jehovah God';, does this mean that God changed His mind about this particular teaching?


Is it possible that God could change His mind?


Has the Watchtower Society ever changed their mind before about a teaching that they once taught as the truth?


Is it true that the Watchtower Society once taught that Armageddon was going to occur in:


1914 - ';The Time Is At Hand'; - 1888 (1911 Ed.), pg 101; Zion's WT - 1/15/1892, pg 22


1918 - ';The Finished Mystery'; - 1917, pg. 62, 485


1925 - ';Millions Now Living Will Never Die';, 1920, pg 89-90; WT, 7/15/24, pg 211


During WW II - WT, 9/15/41, pg 288


1975 - KM, 6/69, pg 3; AWAKE!, 10/8/68, etc.


Before the end of the generation of 1914 - Live Forever book, pg 154; AWAKE!, 10/8/95, pg 4?


Since the Watchtower Society claimed that their teaching of Armageddon coming before the ';end of the generation of 1914'; was ';Jehovah's prophetic word'; (WT-5/15/84, pg.6) and ';the Creator's promise'; (Awake!, 10/8/95, 9/22/95, 9/8/95, etc. pg.4), therefore speaking ';in the name of Jehovah'; (Deut 18:22, NWT), then according to Deut 18:20-22, does this mean that the Watchtower Society is a false prophet?


If so, are you aware of what the Bible says about false prophets? See Mt 7:15, 24:11, Mk 13:22, 2Pet 2:1, 1Jn 4:1, Rev 19:20, 20:10.Should a false teaching be called as '; past truth ';? Why? Why not?
It is all in the intent





God knows the intent of the heart,..if the past information was loaded with inaccuracies based on limited insight of that time, but the intent was sincere and it has now since been corrected...then of course it would be called a past truth/error because that is what was thought to be true.....Ps 130:3 says - If errors were what you watch, O Jah,O Jehovah, who could stand?





But, if the information was known to be false right from the beginning,and is used to mislead and/or is never corrected but is continued to be used as a teaching,...than it would always be a false teaching and will be dealt with in the end. God does know the difference. - 2 Timothy 4:3, 4; 2Ti 3:6-8; Eph 4:13,14





It is similar to the teaching of ';once saved alway saved'; this false teaching is being taught as truth even though the bible does not endorse it. The scriptures repeatedly say that we have to be faithful until the end and that our salvation is not guaranteed just because we have faith in Jesus. We are told to combine our faith with works to prove to God what is really in our hearts. The religious group who believe these false teachings and the ones that teach it as truth will find themselves against God's wrath.








Matt 10:22-- And YOU will be objects of hatred by all people on account of my name; but he that has endured to the end is the one that will be saved





Jude 5, RS: “I desire to remind you, though you were once for all fully informed, that he who saved a people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed those who did not believe.” (Italics added.)





Matt. 24:13, RS: “He who endures to the end will be saved.” (So a person’s final salvation is not determined at the moment that he begins to put faith in Jesus.)





Phil. 2:12, RS: “As you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.” (This was addressed to “the saints,” or holy ones, at Philippi, as stated in Philippians 1:1. Paul urged them not to be overly confident but to realize that their final salvation was not yet assured.)





Heb. 10:26, 27, RS: “If we sin deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a fearful prospect of judgment, and a fury of fire which will consume the adversaries.” (Thus the Bible does not go along with the idea that no matter what sins a person may commit after he is “saved” he will not lose his salvation. It encourages faithfulness. See also Hebrews 6:4-6, where it is shown that even a person anointed with holy spirit can lose his hope of salvation.)





Eph. 2:8, 9, RS: “By grace [“undeserved kindness,” NW] you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing, it is the gift of God—not because of works, lest any man should boast.” (The entire provision for salvation is an expression of God’s undeserved kindness. There is no way that a descendant of Adam can gain salvation on his own, no matter how noble his works are. Salvation is a gift from God given to those who put faith in the sin-atoning value of the sacrifice of his Son.)





Heb. 5:9, RS: “He [Jesus] became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him.” (Italics added.) (Does this conflict with the statement that Christians are “saved through faith”? Not at all. Obedience simply demonstrates that their faith is genuine.)





Jas. 2:14, 26, RS: “What does it profit, my brethren, if a man says he has faith but has not works? Can his faith save him? For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead.” (A person does not earn salvation by his works. But anyone who has genuine faith will have works to go with it—works of obedience to the commands of God and Christ, works that demonstrate his faith and love. Without such works, his faith is dead.)





Acts 16:30, 31, RS: “‘Men, what must I do to be saved?’ And they [Paul and Silas] said, ‘Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.’” (If that man and his household truly believed, would they not act in harmony with their belief? Certainly.)Should a false teaching be called as '; past truth ';? Why? Why not?
A truth is always truth. That is if it comes from Almighty God. What men say can go out and be corrupted. One thousand lies cannot defeat a single truth.





I call a spade a spade and a lie a lie.


God calls false teachings murderous lies.





Desert Rose...Who said anything about the jw's? Not the asker.....
No it should not. A false teaching is a false teaching is a false teaching. To call it a past truth would be calling it a truth at one time. It's either true or it's not.
No because false teaching is false teaching.
The truth is always the truth and will prevail through out time! there is no such thing as a past truth, you can call it a error, a misunderstanding...
no, because if its a false teaching then it is not true, truth does not change over time.
Try NO Truth!
';NO'; A false teach is a Lie, not truth!
Only if it was true. However, the word 'obsolete' says it better.
If it's False it never was true.


There can be only one truth,anything less is false